medicine

INTERNAL MEDICINE MCQS

 

  1. The following cause exudative pleural effusion except
  2. Mesothelioma
  3. Meig’s syndrome
  4. Bromocriptine
  5. Pericardial disease✔✔✔
  6. Ovarian hyper stimulation syndrome

 

  1. Concerning thyroid hormones, which is true?
  2. Thyroxine binding pre-albumin has the largest capacity of binding thyroxine
  3. T3 is formed by oxidative condensation of monoiodothyronine and diiodothyronine ANS↙↙↙
  4. Half-life of T4 is 14 days
  5. T3 has a longer half-life than T4
  6. Over 80% of circulating T3 is formed by the thyroid gland

B is right answer, all other statements are false

half time of T4 is 7 days…T3 half is about a day

thyroxine binding globulin rather than the pre albumin has higher affinity for thyroxine

Most of T3 is gotten from the liver from deiodinzation of T4

 

13

The following are classified as high output states except

  1. Hypertension ANS↙↙↙
  2. Sepsis
  3. Hyperthyroidism
  4. Pregnancy
  5. Arteriovenous malformation

14

Suppurative lymph adenopathy may be caused by the following except

  1. Cat scratch fever
  2. Lymphogranuloma venerum
  3. Tuberculosis
  4. Sarcoidosis ANS↙↙↙
  5. Plague

 

15

Acquired specific immunity

  1. Involves antibody production by T lymphocytes
  2. Can be abolished by administration of cycloserine
  3. Involves the activity of plasma cells ANS↙↙↙
  4. Cytotoxic reaction is type III hypersensitivity reaction
  5. May be an unwanted factor in achieving transplantation success

 

17

Digoxin is important in the management of heart failure due to one of the following

  1. Aortic stenosis
  2. Thyrotoxicosis
  3. Acute myocarditis
  4. Constrictive pericarditis
  5. Hypertension ANS↙↙↙

 

18

Muscle pain, esinophilia, facial oedema and GI Upsets are classical symptoms of clinical

  1. Hookworm infection
  2. Trichinosis ANS↙↙↙
  3. Toxoplasmosis
  4. Onchocerciasis
  5. Pediculosis
  6. Which of the following cannot be palpated by the finger during a DRE in a MALE
  7. Prostate
  8. Distended Bladder
  9. Anorectal ring
  10. Strictures
  11. Non thrombosed Haemorrhoids ANS↙↙↙

Haemorrhoids not palpated except if thrombosed

 

302

The following are features of prostatism except

A urgency

B frequency

C poor urinary stream

D double stream of urine↙↙↙↙

E terminal dribbling,

27

Complications of massive transfusion

a.iron overload

b.infection

c.hyperkalaemia ANS↙↙↙

d.hemosiderosis

  1. rigor
  • Hypothermia
  • Dilutional coagulopathy
  • Hypocalcaemia, hypomagnesaemia, citrate toxicity
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Hyperkalaemia
  • Air embolism

 

28

commonest nerve affected in leprosy

a.ulnar ANS↙↙↙

b.radial

c.tibial

d.median

e.axillary

 

Which of the following diseases doesnt affect the retina

  1. Onchocerciasis
  2. Sickle cell
  3. HIV/AIDS
  4. Albinisim
  5. DM

All affects the retina

 

30

Which of the following is not a gram negative bacilli

  1. Haemophilus ANS↙↙↙
  2. Vibro
  3. Pseudomonas
  4. Bacteriodes
  5. Fusobacterium

Haemophilus is a cocci, others are bacilli

Lente insulin

  1. Is short acting insulin
  2. Shld be given intravenously
  3. Is usually administered 3x daily
  4. Should be given before breakfast↙↙↙↙
  5. Dose mayb divided and 2/3rd of the daily requirement given before supper

It’s intermediate acting

2/3 can be given in the morning and 1/3 at night

Lasts for about 22hrs

NPH and lente are similar but the former contain protamine while the latter contain zinc

Ultra lente is the long acting

 

Sudden loss of vision mayb seen in

  1. Presbyopia
  2. Opacification of the vitreous
  3. Acute iritis✔✔✔
  4. Acute cataract
  5. Optic atrophy

40

Which of the following about ESR is incorrect

  1. Increases with age
  2. Higher in males than females✔✔✔
  3. Low in polycythemia vera
  4. Increases in severe anaemia
  5. Is a measure of acute phase response

Higher in females than males

  1. Concerning bacteria affecting human, which of the following is false.
  2.  E. coli is a gram positive bacilli T (a gram negative bacilli)
  3. Streptococcal is a gram positive cocci. F (correct)
  4. Salmonella are gram positive cocci. T (gram negative bacilli)

D.staphylococcus aureus is a gram positive coccus. F (correct)

  1. Neisseria is a gram positive bacillus. T (a gram negative diplococci)

46 . What is the characteristic features of physiological tremors

  1. Present at rest.
  2. Worsened at rest.
  3. Improved by alcohol ✔✔✔
  4. Improved by caffeine
  5. Familiar.

Most correct option

Improved with alcohol but worsened with caffeine…

  1. Which of the following is true of viral hepatitis.
  2. Hepatitis C commonly present with jaundice. ✔✔✔
  3. Hepatitis E is not fatal in pregnant women.
  4. HbsAg is a marker of viral replication.
  5. Hepatitis A is a risk factors to hepatoma.
  6. Hepatitis D occurs only in association with hepatitis C

A is a correct statement

B is a false statement cos HEV IS FATAL IN PREGNANCY

C is false it’s HbeAg that indicates viral replication

D is false cos HAV gives a mild illness with good prognosis

E is false cos HDV is a hybrid particle associated with HBV

  1. Meningitis is a feature of the following except
  2. Viral infection

B.mumps

C.meningism↖↖↖↖

  1. Anthrax
  2. Leptospirosis
  3. Which of the following is not stored in the Liver?
  4. VIT K
  5. VIT D
  6. VIT B12

D.Glycogen

  1. A.A✔✔✔

There’s no storage form of proteins in the body

61 Tumour lysis syndrome

  1. Hypercalcaemia↙↙↙↙
  2. Hyperkalaemia
  3. Metabolic acidosis
  4. Hyperphosphataemia
  5. None of the above

it causes hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, metabolic acidosis, hypocalcemia

  1. Praziquantel is effective for treatment of the following except
  2. Schistosomiasis
  3. Beef tapeworm
  4. Paragonimiasis
  5. Pork tapeworm✔✔✔
  6. Diphyllobotriasis

Albendazole is preferred to praziquantel in the managenent according to some studies and not recommended by FDA in the management of of neurocysticosis

16

Tumor with excessive collagenous stroma

  1. Sccihrous tumor ANS↙↙↙
  2. Choristoma
  3. Mixed cell tumor
  4. Harmatoma
  5. Teratoma

68 which of d fillowing is not a common cause of massive bleeding a.angiodysplasia b.merkrls diverticulum c.amoebiasis ANS↙↙↙

d.crohns dx e.hemorrhoids

Amoebiasis is a rare cause of lower GI bleeding

 

 

 

 

 

 

70.The following would assist in the diagnosis of the matched clinical conditions: choose the correct match

  1. CA 19-9: Cholestasis ANS↙↙↙
  2. CA 125: Pancreatic carcinoma
  3. CEA: Peritonitis
  4. AFP: Breast cancer
  5. CA 153: Colorectal cancer.

Ca 125 mainly ovarian Ca, also fallopian tube ca, lung .ca, breast .ca, GI .ca

CEA: Intestinal malignancy (colon and rectum)

 

  1. The commonest cause of hyperkalemia
  2. Diuretics
  3. Hemolysis✔✔✔
  4. metabolic acidosis
  5. Ketonuria
  6. Which statement is false
  7. A. Hypomagnesemia worsens digoxin toxicity
  8. B. Cns complications can arise from correction of sodium disorders
  9. C. Hyperkalemia presents with hyperreflexia✔✔✔
  10. D. Altered sensorium can be a feature of hypernatremia
  11. E. None of the above
  12. Concerning hypernatremia, except
  13. Muscle twitching is a feature
  14. Prognosis is worsr because it occurs in infants with diarrhoea
  15. Use of 100mg of table salt per meal is a causative factor. ANS.
  16. Serum Osmolality is above 300mOsmol/kg
  17. None of the above

 

  1. First reaction in haemostasis
  2. Vascular spasm ANS
  3. Blood coagulation
  4. Blood Agglutination
  5. Blood stasis
  6. None of the above
  7. Concerning anti-hypertensives
  8. Labetalol and Nitroglycerine are preferred in the management of Acute coronary syndrome ✔✔✔
  9. In acute heart failure sublingual Nitroglycerine is not very useful
  10. Adrenergic inhibitors include Labetalol and Nifedipine
  11. The goal in the management of hypertensive emergency is to reduce MAP by 50% in 2hrs
  12. All of the Above

 

79.Which form of malnutrition is not common in Adults

  1. Kwashiokwor ANS
  2. Marasmus
  3. Lactose intolerance
  4. Obesity
  5. None of the above

90 Which of the following substances has the lowest renal cleaeance

  1. Creatinine
  2. Glucose ANS
  3. Potassium
  4. Sodium
  5. Para-aminohippuric acid

93 vit D deficiency will lead to

a.hypercalcemia

b.impaired intestinal absorption of ca ANS

c decrease urinary excretion of ca

d.hypophosphataemia

e.none of the above

 

94 Osteomalacia: one of the following is false

  1. Impairment of intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus
  2. Resorption of calcium from bone
  3. Osteoid tissue is abnormal ANS
  4. The radiological finding is generalized bone rarefaction
  5. Fractures may occur spontaneously

 

95 Concerning Hypernatremia

  1. Prognosis is worse because it occurs in infants with diarrhea
  2. Muscle twitching is a feature
  3. Serum osmolality is above 300mOsm/kg
  4. Use of 100mg of table salt per meal is a causative factor ANS E. None of the above

 

96 One of these is a rule in fluid replacement A. Replace plasma with crystalloid B. Resuscitate with crystalloid and colloids C. Rehydrate with dextrose infusion✔✔✔ D. Replace ECF depletion with dextrose infusion

  1. Mannitol is also a fluid of choice.

 

97 The following vaccines is NOT contraindicated in patients with HIV infection A.MMR

B.varicella

  1. Small pox
  2. Live attenuated
  3. Hepatitis B ANS

 

98 ABO incompatible transfusion is characterised by

A fever chills

B hypotension

C disseminated intravascular coagulation

D harmoglobubinaemia

E localised bleeding ANS

 

99 The sickling of sickle haemoglobin(HbS) erythrocytes may be ameliorated by any of these

A coexistence of HbS with HbC

B coexistence of HbS with thalassemia

C decrease pH

D HbF ANS

 E none of the above

103 the following can cause tb reactivation in an individual xcept

a old age

b.immunosuppression

c.recurrent rhinitis ANS

 d.cytotoxic therapy

  1. steroid therapy

 

106 In a patient with chronic hepatitis B, which one of this would suggest that the infection is in a chronic phase stage?

  1. A normal liver biopsy
  2. Detected level of HbeAb
  3. Detected level of HbsAB
  4. Elevated level of ALT ANS
  5. Undetected level of HBV DNA

113 . About pneumocystis jiroveci

  1. Aids defining illness
  2. Causative organism is a fungus

C diagnosis is by histology

  1. Organism is isolated by culture ANS
  2. Chest radiograph may be normal

 

114 Bronchiectasis A. Is a chronic lung parenchymal disease B. Is unlikely to be a secondary infection C.is a primary suppurative lung disease D. Involves inflammation of the bronchial wall✔✔✔ E. Is common in a previous healthy young adults

115 The following is true of viral hepatitis

  1. HbsAg is detectable during incubation period ✔✔✔
  2. Presence of anti Hbs is evidence of post infection immunisation ✔✔✔
  3. Hepatitis C is a common cause of Acute symptomatic hepatitis
  4. Acute viral hepatitis b infection does not progress to carrier state
  5. Presence of antibody against HbcAg is indicative of current infection

 

116 Osteomalacia: one of the following is false

  1. Impairment of intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus
  2. Resorption of calcium from bone
  3. Osteoid tissue is abnormal ANS
  4. The radiological finding is generalized bone rarefaction
  5. Fractures may occur spontaneously

 

117 Which of the following are passively reabsorbed in the proximal tubules

  1. Amino acid
  2. Glucose
  3. Urea ANS
  4. Oxalate
  5. Bile acid

131 A syringe used to give insulin labelled D/100. This means

  1. 100IU/ml ANS
  2. 10IU/ml
  3. 1IU/ml
  4. 100IU/dl
  5. 10IU/dl

 

132 In bile duct obstruction, which is increased in the blood.

  1. Free bilirubin
  2. Bilirubin glucoronide ANS
  3. Urobilinogen D. Glucoronyl transferase 133 Which of the drugs causes pin point pupil A. Methanol B. Pilocarpine ANS C. Amantidine D. Chloroquine E. Chloramphenicol 134 Cancer of the penis is commonest among A. Africans ANS B. Americans C. Japanese D. Negriod E. Australians 135 Vitamins stored in the liver except A. A B. D C. E D. K E. B1 ✔✔✔

Vol of urine in bladder that will cause urge for micturition A. 100-200mls ANS

  1. 300-400mls C. 500-700mls D. 800-1000mls E. 1500mls

 

138 The aim of crossmatching during blood transfusion does not include

  1. ABO compatibility
  2. Ab screening of recipient
  3. Ab screening of donor
  4. Identify atypical Ab ANS
  5. All of the above

 

139 Diphyllobotum latum causes anemia by

  1. Blood sucking activity
  2. Occlusion of common bile duct
  3. Production of toxin that affects RBCs
  4. Inhibition of iron absorbtion
  5. Competition with host for vit B12 ANS

 

140 Skeletal muscle, cardiac and CNS tissue involvement occurs with which of the following

  1. Wuchereria Bancrofti
  2. Onchocercia volvulus
  3. Enterobius vermicularis
  4. Trichenella spirallis ANS
  5. Necator americanus

 

141 Antibodies against Acetylcholine neural receptors are thought to be involved in the pathogenesis of

  1. Myasthenia gravis ANS
  2. Multiple sclerosis
  3. Acute idiopathic polyneuritis
  4. Gullian-Barre syndrome
  5. Post pericardiotomy syndrome

 

142 A rising titre of antistreptolysin O indicates a diagnosis of A. Acute rheumatic fever B. Glomerulonephritis C. A recent streptococcal infection ANS

  1. Scarlet fever E. Erypsipelas

 

143 Penicillin would be least effective in treating which of the following disease

  1. Syphilis
  2. Pneumococcal pneumonia
  3. Mycoplasma pneumonia ANS
  4. Gonorrhea
  5. S. Pharyngitis

 

144 In the following diseases, the aetiological agents are initially introduced to the host in the form of spores except

  1. Tetanus
  2. Infant botulism
  3. Anthrax
  4. Gas gangrene
  5. Diphtheria ANS

 

145 Ticks are the arthropod vectors of

  1. Tsutsugamushi disease
  2. Rocky mountain spotted fever ANS
  3. Marine typhus
  4. Epidemic typhus
  5. Bubonic plague

 

146 The disease pellagra can be prevented by dietary sufficiency of

  1. Vit D
  2. Riboflavin
  3. Retinoic acid
  4. Thiamine
  5. Niacin ANS

147 Of the following, the virus that is most resistant to chemical and physical agents is the one that causes

  1. Mumps
  2. Measles
  3. Influenza
  4. Serum hepatitis
  5. Polio ANS

148 The liver is the only body organ that is capable of

  1. Urea formation ANS
  2. Ganglioside synthesis
  3. Nucleotide synthesis
  4. Medium chain fatty acid synthesis
  5. Glycogen degradation

156 Agents that should be used initially in the mgt of Ascaris or enterobius vermicularis include

  1. Thiabendazole
  2. Pyrantel parmoate ANS
  3. Tetrachloroethylene
  4. Diethyl carbamazipine
  5. Antimony potassium tartate

 

157 Which statement about HIV virus is not true

  1. It is a retrovirus
  2. Genetic material is RNA
  3. The virus do not have their genetic information transcribed into DNA molecule ANS
  4. They re transcribed by reverse transcriptase
  5. Reverse transcriptase is a DNA dependent polymerase ANS

 

158 The preferred form of iron in the treatment of iron deficiency anemia is

  1. Oral ferrous tumarate
  2. Oral ferrous gluconate
  3. Oral ferrous sulphate ANS
  4. IV iron dextran

 

171

Hypochromic microcytic aneamia is classically caused by

  1. Recent blood loss
  2. VitB 12 deficiency
  3. Iron deficiency ANS
  4. Folic acid deficiency
  5. Accelerated erythropoiesis

172

Intravascular thrombus formation is most unlikely when there is

  1. Damage to endothelium
  2. Hypercoagulable state
  3. Warfarin therapy ANS
  4. Stasis of blood
  5. Hyperviscocity syndrome

173

Liquefactive necrosis is the characteristic result of infarcts in the

  1. Brain ANS
  2. Heart
  3. Kidney
  4. Spleen
  5. Small intestine

174

The major scavenger cell involved in the inflammatory response is

  1. Neutrophil
  2. Lymphocyte
  3. Plasma cell
  4. Eosinophil
  5. Macrophage ANS

175

The anaphylactic reaction is a type 1 immunologic response. An expected finding would be

  1. Reaction to an antigen on first exposure to the antibody
  2. An interaction of antibody with the eosinophilic leukocyte ANS
  3. Release of vasoactive amines
  4. IgA antibody as the mediator of response
  5. Tuberculin type giant cell

176

Which of the following statements concerning S.Mansoni infestation is false

  1. The eggs are usually shed in the faeces
  2. Liver fibrosis may be a long term complication
  3. One of the phases in the life cycle includes the fresh water snail
  4. The initial phase of infection in humans is from water contact with the skin
  5. It is a frequent cause of hematuria ANS

177

Which statement is not true about radiation induced carcinogenesis

  1. The amount of damage is related to the dose of radiation
  2. RNA is the major cell target for radiation injury ANS
  3. Cells can repair radiation induced cell damage
  4. Past history of the therapeutic radiation has been implicated in carcinogenesis
  5. Occupational exposure to radiation is a well documented cause of cancer

178

Oedema is caused by all the following except

  1. Increased vascular permeability
  2. Obstruction to lymphatic flow
  3. Sodium retention
  4. Increased plasma protein ANS
  5. Increased capillary blood pressure

180

Which of the following disease states characteristically produces the nephritic syndrome

  1. Interstitial nephritis
  2. Membranous glomerulonephritis
  3. Unilateral hydronephrosis
  4. Acute crescentic glomerulonephritis ANS
  5. Polycystic disease of the kidneys

181 diverticulosis occur most frequently in the

A caecum

B ascending colon

C descending colon

Dtransverse colon

E sigmoid collon✔✔✔

  1. The philadelphia chromosome is most often associated with which diseaese

A follicular lmphoma

B burkitt lymphoma

C down syndrome

D ALL

E CML✔✔✔

  1. Bronze diabetes is a term use to describe

A melanoma

B haemosiderosis

C diabetes mellitus

D kwashiokor

E haemochromatosis✔✔✔

 

  1. Niacin deficiency is associated with

A night blindness

B a bleeding diasthesis

C altered formation of connective tissue

D neuromuscular cardiac prob and oedema

E dermatitis, diarrhoea and dementia✔✔✔

The 3Ds(pellagra)

  1. The following are risk associated with lumber puncture except
  2. Back pain
  3. Hernia
  4. Infection

 

  1. Air embolism✔✔✔
  2. CSF leak
  3. Causes of generalised seizures
  4. Protein loosing enteropathy
  5. Liver cirrhosis✔✔✔
  6. Allergy
  7. Nephrotic syndrome
  8. Generalised urticaria

Hepatic encephalopathy

224

All of the following may characterize sickle cell anemia except that

  1. Sickling occurs when there is a high concentration of the deoxygenation form of hemoglobin S
  2. HbS is altered by the change of a single amino acid in the B chain
  3. HbS has an unchanged electrophoretic mobility relative to normal hemoglobin ↙↙↙↙
  4. The disease can be diagnosed in fetal DNA by restriction enzyme digestion
  5. The solubility of deoxygenated HbS is abnormally low

232

The following are indication for tracheal intubation except

  1. Pulmonary toileting
  2. Positive pressure ventilation
  3. Drug administration
  4. Visualize vocal cords↙↙↙↙
  5. Prevent aspiration

233

The following are known causes of airway obstruction except

  1. Laryngeal spasm
  2. Pulmonary oedema
  3. Foreign body in the mouth↙↙↙↙
  4. Tongue falling back
  5. Kinking of connecting tube

255

Which of the following may be observed on inspection of the respiratory system

A.Bronchial breath sounds,tenderness and dull percussion note

B.Crepitation,subcutaneous emphysema and hyper resonant percussion note

C.Vesicular breath sounds,reduced chest expansion and rhonchi

D.Whispering pectriloquay and a deviated trachea

E.Intercoastal recession,scarification marks and right gynecomastia↙↙↙↙

 

257

The following are indications for anticoagulating a patient with AF with Warfarin except

A age under 60yrs ↙↙↙↙↙

B associated mitral stenosis

C AF more than 24 hrs duration

D history of cerebral thromboembolism

E associated Left Ventricular failure

273

Which of these is a rule in fluid replacement

A replace pllasma with crystalloid

B Resuscitate with crystalloid and colloids

C Rehydrate with dextrose infusion ↙↙↙↙

D replace ECF depletion with dextrose infusion

E replace blood with normal saline

Nb: Replace plasma with colloid

Resuscitate with colloids

Rehydrate with dextrose infusion

Replace ECF depletion with saline

Replace blood with blood

274

ECG findings in hyperkalemia includes

A absent P wave↙↙↙↙

B Peaked P wave

C Inverted T wave

D U wave

E widened ST segment

ECG findings in hyperkalaemia:

_Absent P wave

_Widened QRS complex

_Peaked T wave

276

Which of the following would be most appropriate for a stroke patient with hypertension, DM and AF

A Clopidogrel

B Aspirin

C dipyridamole

D Warfarin ↙↙↙↙

E enoxaparin

89 in rabies

a.i.p is 2__16days

b.lewi bodies are seen on brain histology

c.aerophobia can be a feature✔✔

d.skin specimen can be used for dx✔✔

e.has a DSRNA genome enclosed within a bullet shaped capsid

 

500 You have just examined the abdomen of a 43yro farmer complaining of persistent nausea and easy fatigability. The significant findings are an enlarged right kidney and moderate ascities. What would be your next step

  1. An urgent referral to the nephrologist B. A request for an abdomino pelvic USS C. Give him a loading dose of 100mg of IV furosemide D. Carry out a bed side urinalysis↙↙↙ E. Perform a diagnostic abdomino centesis

 

503

 

Which of the following is observed in severe degrees of shock

A. Air hunger is due to the attempts via the CO2 inhibited respiratory center to compensate for the body’s hypoxic states

B. The skin is cold and clammy because of poor perfusion aggravated by the sympathetic response of vasoconstriction and poor adrenaline release

C. The pulse is rapid, weak and thready because of decreased rate of the Sino atrial node by the adrenal sympathetic activity

D. The pulse pressure is wide because of reduced peripheral resistance following dilatation of the arterioles especially in the terminal stages

E. Poor urinary output is caused by sympathetic vasoconstriction of the renal vessels↙↙↙

 

504 In assessing the integrity of the occulomotor nerve, which of the following may be done A. Ask patient to shrug his shoulder, count your fingers and stick out his tongue B. Ask the patient to say aah, identify the smell of a pungent substance with his eyes closed or spell a five letter word correctly C. Check the pupilary light reflex in both eyes and the movement of some of the extra ocular muscle↙↙↙ D. Assess the tone in the upper limbs and power in lower limb E. Elicit knee jerk reflex

 

505 Concerning chlamydia trachomatis, which is true? A. The genital ulcers caused by it are painful B. Its serotypes L3-L6 cause Lymphogranuloma venereum C. It causes chancroid D. Treatment is with tetramycin↙↙↙ E. Treatment is with cotrimoxazole. Ulcers are painless It is treated with doxycycline, azithromycin and sometimes tetracycline Serotypes L1-L3 causes LGV Haemophilus ducreyi cauases chancroid

 

513 The catabolism of haemoglobin

  1. Occurs in RBCs B. Results in liberation of CO2 C. Involves the oxidative cleavage of porphyria ring D. Results in formation of protoporphyriagen E. Is the sole source of bilirubin↙↙↙ Only true option

 

514 In a 62yr old known hypertensive diagnosed over 20yrs ago with 2wks history of fatigue, lethargy, muscle cramps and hiccups. He also had polyuria, pedal and facial swelling. Lab investigation may most likely reveal. A. Elevated haemoglobin B. Reduced creatinine. C. Hypophophataemia D. Hypocalcemia↙↙↙ E. Hyperglycemic

 

515 Concerning red cells antigens, which is incorrect? A. They can be either sugar (glycans or carbohydrates) or proteins and they determine a person’s blood group B. Over 400 red cell antigens have been identified C. Antibodies to ABO antigens are found at birth↙↙↙ D. Antigens of the Rh blood group are proteins E. A person with blood group O has neither the A nor B antigen on their RBC membrane.

 

517 Concerning thyroid hormones, which is true? A. Thyroxine binding pre-albumin has the largest capacity of binding thyroxine B. T3 is formed by oxidative condensation of monoiodothyronine and diiodothyronine↙↙↙ C. Half-life of T4 is 14 days D. T3 has a longer half-life than T4 E. Over 80% of circulating T3 is formed by the thyroid gland

 

520 In haemolytic anaemia, the following are increased except  A reticulocyte count  B. Haptoglobin↙↙↙ C. Urine hemosiderin D. Lactate dehydrogenase  E. unconjugated bilirubin

 

521 Causes of microcytic anaemia include  A. Sickle cell anemia  B. Spherocytosis C. Thalasaemia↙↙↙ D. Ellipticytosis E. G6PD deficiency

 

 

, 525 The ff are correct abt temp except: A. Temp of the mouth or rectum is generally atleast half a degree higher than that of the groin or axilla B. Normal body temp 36.6-37.2 C. Febrile is >37.2 D. Hyperpyrexia 41.6 E. Hypothermia is <36✔✔✔ All are correct except E

 

529 Has no pulmonary passage of larvae  A Pinworm✔✔ B Hookworm  C strongyloides stercoralis D Ascaris E H.nana✔✔ B,C,E has pulmonary passage

 

530 What category of HSR best describes hemolytic dx of newborn caused by rhesus incompatibility  A. Atopic B. Cytotoxic↙↙↙ C. Immune complex D. Delayed  E. Ige mediated

 

533 A 23 year old type 1 diabetic not adhering to his insulin medications and develops hyperglycaemia. The release of which of the following will be stimulated  A. Gastrin B. Motilin  C. Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide D. Secretin E.gastric inhibitory peptide↙↙↙

 

538 Concerning melanocyte: A. Only cell responsible for pigmentation ↙↙↙ B. Arranged in the basal layer in ratio 1:5 C. 1 melanocyte supplies 2 keratinocyte D. 0Directly produce melanin E. Derived from neural crest, dendritic cells

 

539 Concerning carpal tunnel syndrome  A. Loss of sensation in the lateral 3 and half fingers↙↙↙ B. The thenar is not affected.  C there is loss of opposition of the thumb D loss of addiction of the thumb

 

540 Which of the following will not require an assessment of the vestibulocochlear nerve  A. Salam attack↙↙↙ B. Vertigo C. Nystagmus  D. Unsteady gaite

  1. Dizziness

 

542 Which of the following would be most appropriately for a stroke patient with hypertension diabetes mellitus and atrial fibrillation? A clopidrogel B aspirin C dipyridamole D warfarin↙↙↙ E enoxaprin

 

543 Platelet concentrate  Indication for cryoprecipitate is  a. DIC  b Hemophilia b ↙↙↙ c. vWD d. Severe plasma loss  Used for haemophilia A

 

544 Patient with blood group O receive plasma from  a. Group A  b Group AB  c. Group B  d. None of the above↙↙↙ They are universal donors, they receive from only O but donates to all groups

 

545 Which of these drugs is unlikely to induce hemolytic jaundice? A. Penicillin B. Cephalosporin C. Aldomet

  1. Dapsone E. Naphthalene↙↙↙

 

546 Tricuspid atresia is always associated with the following except  A VSD B ASD C PDA D LVH E RVH↙↙↙

 

547 Vaccine temperature storage requirement A. All live vaccines are to be stored at wet freeze B. All live vaccines are to be stored at dry freeze C. DPT, Hepatitis B, and measles vaccines are to be stored at 2-8°C refrigeration↙↙↙ D. BCG, yellow fever and hepatitis B are to be stored at dry freeze E. Measles, BCG and OPV require dry freeze

 

548 The major fat used in starvation is A Triglycerides  B Cholesterol C Fattyacids↙↙↙ D Triglycerol

 

549 Alcohol causes fatty liver because  A it has high calories  B it has low calories

C it causes accumulation of triglycerides ↙↙↙ D it causes accumulation of fats

 

553 Factors that aid bone growth except a Thyroxine  b Parathyr.  c Weight-bearing ↙↙↙

d Gh e Testisterone

 

554 Plasma and leucocyte leakage during inflammation is caused by a Endothelium↙↙↙ b Arterioles c Capillaries  d Cappillaries and arterioles  e Venules

 

555 The following are genetic dx carried from one generation to the other except.  a Polio ↙↙↙ b Dm c Hypertension  d Blindness  e Pshyconeurosis

 

556 The risk of having a baby with trisomy 21 for a 31 yr old woman increases A. If she has had multiple 1st trimester spontaneous abortion↙↙↙ B. If she had a previous baby with turner’s C. If the husband is 40yrs D. If pregnancy was by induced ovulation. E. All of the above

 

557 One major categories of genetic disorders include A. Single gene disorder-10% of population B. Chromosomal disorder-7.5% of all conceptuses, leaving a birth difference of 0.6% C. Single gene disorder-15% of population

  1. Single gene disorder-20% of population✔✔✔
  2. Single gene disorder-25%of population

 

558 The enzyme involved in the biosynthesis of isoprenoids and steroids is a Acetyl -coa  b HMG COA reductase ↙↙↙ c Transferase d Cholesterase e Alpha reductase

 

559 the following syndromes are associated with short stature except A. downs syndrome B. Noonans synd. C. Homocystunuria↙↙↙ D. Biedl-Bardet E. Laurence moon Homocystinuria is associated with tall stature ,others are associated with short stature

 

560 Concerning turners syndrome xcept A. gonadal dysgenesis B. left sided hrt failure C. 45X0 D. Rt heart failure↙↙↙ E. same phenotype with Noonans synd.

 

561 causes of tall stature  A. Marfans B. homocystunuria C. XYY D. Soto syndrome

  1. Praderwillis synd.↙↙↙ Praderwilli is associated with short stature

 

567 What do S. aereus, Serratia marcescens & Pseudomonas aeruginosa produce? A. Enterotoxin B. Lipoteichoic acid C. Endotoxin D. Pigments↙↙↙ E. Mycolic acid

572 A tourniquet applied to limb of a conscious unsedated patient will typically become intolerable after A. 10mins B. 30mins??? C. 45mins D. 60mins E. 80mins

 

574 Which of the ffg is not pierced While performing à lumbar puncture À supraspinous ligament B subdural space C dura mater D pia mater↙↙↙ Ë epidural space

580 Recognized side effects of long term corticosteroid therapy include all except A. Deep venous thrombosis B. A paranoid state↙↙↙ C. Hypertension

  1. Hypokalaemia E. Osteoporosis

 

 

581 The first clotting factor to be activated during extrinsic mechanism of blood coagulation is  A factor 111,  B factor X11  C factor 1  D factor V11 ↙↙↙ E factor X1.

583 Dysgeusia and hyposmia can influence nutrition in the elderly in the following ways except A. Poor appetite B. Inappropriate food choices C. Reduced nutrient intake D. Inability to procure nutrient rich food↙↙↙ E. Inability to determine what type of foodstuff to procure Poor taste and smell has no role to play in determining which food is nutrient rich or not 584 The following are physiological changes which affect bioavailability of nutrient in the body of the elderly except A. Decreased taste sensation B. Decreased saliva production C. Increased gastric emptying time↙↙↙ D. Achlorhydia E. Constipation The elderly rather have decreased gastric emptying time

 

585 The following statements are true except?  A. Iron absorption is reduced in hypochlorhyric state  B. Vitamin D absorption is often deficient in the presence of gastritis ↙↙↙

C VitB12 supplement are often necessary following gastrectomy  D anemia associated with chronic atrophic gastritis may respond to supplements  E. Intestinal metaplasia in the stomach is a risk

 

588 Which of the following helmints has the longest life span in human intestine?  A Trichuria trichuris  B Ascaris  C Entrobius  D Hookworm ↙↙↙ E S.Stercoralis

590 The following statement are true of apex beat, except?  A. it is the lowest and most lateral point at which the cardiac impulse is highest. B. it is displaced downward and laterally if the left ventricle is enlarged.

  1. it is thrusting in mitral stenosis. ↙↙↙ D. it is thrusting in mitral stenosis. ↙↙↙ E. it is heaving in aortic stenosis., C and D corect answer. .so false statement..thrusting apex is aortic or mitral regurgitation. .. mitral stenosis is tapping apex

 

592 Concerning carpal tunnel syndrome  A. Loss of sensation in the lateral 3 and half fingers↖↖↖ B. The thenar is not affected.  C there is loss of opposition of the thumb D loss of adduction of the thumb

 

 

593 Principal findings of Congenital cytomegalic inclusion disease include all except: A. Microcephaly B. Deafness C. Cerebral calcification D. Blindness↙↙↙ E. Hepatosplenomegaly

 

CID occurs commonly in women who have primary CMV infection during the pregnancy although rare cases are described in women with pre existing immunity who presumably have reactivation of infection during pregnancy Characterized by IUGR, Hepatosplenomegaly, haematological abnormalities particularly thrombocytopenia, various cutaneous manifestation including petechiae and purpura ( blueberry muffin baby). Significant manifestations involves the CNS…microcephaly, ventriculomegaly, cerebral atrophy, chorioretinitis, sensorineural hearing loss, Intracerebral Calcifications demonstrates a   peri ventricular distribution encountered in CT scan..

594 B blockers cause all the ffg xcept

 

A bradycardia B heart block C Impotence D bronchoconstriction E hyperuricaemia↙↙↙

 

595 Cysticerci of Taenia solium are most commonly detected in  A brain  B intestines ↙↙↙ C csf D skeletal muscle  E eye Odd one out Cystercerci can be found anywhere in the body but are most commonly detected in the brain, CSF,Subcutaneous tissue, eye, skeletal muscles

 

601 Vaccine temperature storage requirement A. All live vaccines are to be stored at wet freeze  F B. All live vaccines are to be stored at dry freeze C. DPT, Hepatitis B, and measles vaccines are to be stored at 2-8°C refrigeration D. BCG, yellow fever and hepatitis B are to be stored at dry freeze    F E. Measles, BCG and OPV require dry freeze

Option A is false cos live vaccines are freeze dried, option  D is false cos hepatitis B vaccine is a conjugate and not freeze dried like live vaccines. While the other options are correct

603 Exposure to lead leads to the ffg except A abdominal pain B paresis C liver failure↙↙↙ D breakdown of porphyrin E anaemia

 

605 Hyper secretion of oestrogen in men causes?  a. Addison disease.  b. hair growth.  c. kidney failure.  d. gynacomastia. ↙↙↙ e. splenomegaly

 

610 Which one of these organism is most likely be related to drinking water, because it can persist and survive disinfection with chlorine?  A. Escherichia coli.  B. vibrio cholera.  C. campylobacter jejuni.

  1. giardia. ↙↙↙ E. rotavirus. Organisms that are resistant to low doses of chlorine includes Oocysts of crystosporidium partum Cysts of entamoeba histolytica Cysts of giardia lambda Eggs of parasitic worms

 

611 Concerning the pulse?  A. in pulsus paradoxus the rate slows during inspiration.  B. pulsusalternans indicates a perfectly functioning left ventricle.  C. a tachycardia of 90 beats per minute in a resting patient indicates underlying cardiac arrhythmias.  D. a collapsing pulse may be noticed in thyrotoxicosis. ↙↙↙ E. corringans sign supports a diagnosis of aortic stenosis. Pulsus paradoxus is the normal slight fall in systolic not during inspiration,pulsus alternans in damage to heart muscle, tachycardia pr>100bpm,corrigan sign in aortic regurgitation.

 

612 The following are true about jugular venous pressure?  A. is raised if it is 3cm above the sternal angle with the patient supine ✔✔ b. tall ‘a’ wave may be seen in pulmonary hypertension.  C. irregular cannon waves indicate complete heart block.  D. regular cannon waves may indicate a nodal rhythm.  E. giant ‘v’ waves and a pulsatile liver indicate tricuspid stenosis.

 

Ans-A✅✅✅ Only false statement

 

613 The following would suggest an upper rather than lower motor lesion, except?  a. fasciculation. ✔✔✔ B. increased tone.  C. exaggerated plantar reflex.  D. clonus.  E. relatively little wasting.

Ans-A✅✅✅. Others are UMNL

 

614 Which tract is responsible for proprioceptive senses?

  1. DCML✔✔✔ B. Ant spinothalamic C. Lat spinothalamic D. Spinocerebellar E. Tectospinal

 

615

 

Which is not true about upper motor neuron lesion? A. Spasticity B. Clonus C. Positive Babinski

  1. Negative Babinski✔✔✔ E. Hyperrefkexia

 

616 Micelle formation is necessary for the absorption of A leucine   B galactose

C vitamin d  ✔✔✔ D vitamin e   E vitamin k

 

617 Concerning ECV A. Ts determined by Na and K B. Regulation is independent of Na balance  C. In a 70kg man, plasma fluid constitutes 50% D. Distribution depends only on capillary permeability and oncotic pressure

  1. 15% of the plasma fluid resides in the arterial circulation✔✔ Only true ans A-by Na B-dependent on Na C-20percent D-and hydrostatic pressure

 

619 Which type of collagen is produced in excess in keloid  A type 1  b type 2

c type 3✔✔✔  d type 4  e type 6

 

620 Which of these is false  Nitrogen pool is a grand mixture of  A.  Available in cells derived from dietary sources B.  In healthy individuals both input and output are balanced

  1. No protein turnover is associated with a. A pool✔✔✔ D. Metabolism is divided into 2categories E. Protein regulate fluid balance

 

  1. Which of these statement is true? A. Men have higher percentage of body water than women about 75% B. Infants have lower percentage of body water than women
  2. Percentage body water in the elderly is about 45% ✔✔✔ D. Extracellular fluid compartments in the body account for 40% of body weight. E. Fluid loss from the lungs is about 400mls Embryo; 97% New born; 77% Adult males; 60% Adult females; 54% Elderly; 45% Extracellular fluid compartments in the body account for 20% of body weight while intracellular fluid compartments in the body account for 40% of body weight.

 

622 One major categories of genetic disorders include A. Single gene disorder-10% of population B. Chromosomal disorder-7.5% of all conceptuses, leaving a birth difference of 0.6% C. Single gene disorder-15% of population

  1. Single gene disorder-20% of population✔✔✔
  2. Single gene disorder-25%of population

 

625 Korotoff sound is a. Aortic valve opening b. Aortic valve closure.

  1. Av valve opening ✔✔✔ d. Av valve closure

 

626 The main stimulus for peristalsis is

  1. Distention ✔✔✔ B. Sympathetic innervation

C para sympathetic innervation

 

628 Aortic stenosis  A. Pan systolic murmur  B. Mid diastolic mumur

  1. Ejection systolic murmur ✔✔✔ D. Diastolic murmur

 

629 Effect of sympathetic stimulation on the heart A. Decrease rate of SA node B. Decrease rate of cardiac pace maker C. Decrease heart rate

  1. Increased cardiac output✔✔✔

 

630 The following is true about diazepam except  A it’s a benzodiazepine  B it may be used in the treatment of epilepsy  C it is used in anxiety disorders  D it can be given 3hrly in certain conditions

E it can be used continuously for up to 2 months✔✔✔

 

638 Wc deficiency factor is associated with thrombosis rather than hemorrhage  a. Factor xiii b. Xii c. Vii d. V e. V and xii↙↙↙ Factors v and xii deficiency are associated with thrombosis not haemorrhage

 

644 Which one of these organism is most likely be related to drinking water, because it can persist and survive disinfection with chlorine?   A.  Escherichia coli.         B.  vibrio cholera.          C.  campylobacter jejuni.        D.  giardia.↙↙↙         E.  rotavirus.

 

645 Which of the following is more likely to occur with glibenclimide than with metformin?            A.  lactic acidosis.            B.   hypoglycemia.↙↙↙     C.   weight loss.            D.   headache.           E.   gastrointestinal distress Hypoglycaemia occurs more with glibenclamide than metformin.

 

647 The cellular transformation from a normal to a cancerous cell is called?  A.  carcinogenesis.↙↙↙ B.  metastasis.

  1. mutation. D.  necrosis.         E.  rapid duplication.

 

648 Which cellular adaptation describes an increase in the number of cells in response to an increased workload?         A. atrophy.            B. hypertrophy.           C. hyperplasia.     ↙↙↙     D. metaplasia.            E. dysplasia. increase in size in response to workload should be hypertrophy while increase in cell number is hyperplasia

 

649 What is the most commonly cause of tonsillitis?       A. a virus.↙↙↙    B. a bacteria.          C. a fungus.           D. a protozoa.            E. medication. EBV

 

650 The matching of route of transmission of pathogens is appropriately done, except?      A   airborne – abdominal tuberculosis.↙↙↙  B.  arthropods – yellow fever.        C.  trans placental – rubella.         D.  penetration of intact skin – strongyloisis.

E faeco-oral route-Poliomyelitis  Abdominal tuberculosis’s route of transmission is via Ingestion of infected food OR through hematogenous route…..A is False….

 

651 tetanus? A. infection confers life long immunity. B.patients should be nursed in the open ward with lots of lights. C.patients does not need tetanus immunization on recovery. D.patients should be nursed in dark, quiet room.↙↙↙ E.the patient usually unconscious.,

 

652 All are signs of respiratory obstruction except A.Prolonged expiration B.Reduced chest movement C.Increased force to inflate the lungs D.Cyanosis E.Vesicular breath sound.↙↙↙

 

 

653 Brain tumors A. Personality changes B.Common in neonates C.May cause early morning vomiting D.Non-projectile vomiting E. A n C↙↙↙

 

  1. Colo-rectal tumors A.Constipation

B.Diarrhea C.tenesmus D.A and B E.A,B and C↙↙↙

 

655 mebendazole is effective in the treatment of the following except A. Ascaris lumbricoides B.Trichuris trichuria C.Ankylostoma duodenale D.Enterobius vermicularis E.Schistosoma haematobium↙↙↙ Drug of choice for schistosoma is praziquantel

 

656 the best drug for the treatment of stongyloides is A.Ivermectin↙↙↙ B.Albendazole C.Mebendazole D.Levamizole E.Praziquante

 

657 Concerning hydrochloric acid, A. Converts pepsin into pepsinogen B. Found also in the gall bladder C. Denatures proteins↙↙↙ D.All of the above E.None of the above It converts pepsinogen to pepsin

 

658 Essential amino acids include all except

  1. Isoleucine B. Methionine C.Histidine D.Valine E.Glycine↙↙↙

 

  1. Daily protein requirement is A.50-80g/day B.40–50g/day C.70g/day D.44–60g/day↙↙↙ E.44–75g/day 46 to 56g per day

 

  1. Complications of blood transfusion includes all except. A. Iron overload B. Graft versus host disease C. Viral injection D. Blood dyscrasia↙↙↙ E. Parasitic infection

 

  1. Which is not part of initial phase of severe malnutrition mgmt? A. Intensive feeding to recover lost weight↙↙↙ B.Electrolyte correction C.Reversion of metabolic anomalies D.Problems are identified and treated D.None of the above

 

  1. Which of these drugs would not cause overweight
  2. OCPs B. Antipsychiatric medications C. Antidepressants D. Metformin↙↙↙ E. Steroids

 

  1. Vit.K deficiency A. Impaired production of factors II,VII,IX and X B.Impaired production of protein C and protein S C.HDN occur in 0.25-1.7% of newborn with vit.K deficiency↙↙↙ D. B.fragiles produces vit K in the gut E. Incidence of HDN occur in almost all newborn with vit.K deficiency, necessitating 0.5-1mg vit.K prophylaxis

 

  1. Which of these cestodes has man as both intermediate and definitive host? A.T.saginata B.T.multiceps C.Dipylidiumcaninum D.T.solium↙↙↙ E.Echinococcusmulticularis T solium is the only taenia that have humans as both definitive and intermediate host

 

665 Which is not true about the diagnosis of infection with T.saginata? A. Eggs maybe found in perianal region B. Egg detection in stool C. Proglottids detection in stool D. Serological test are helpful↙↙↙ E. FBC for eosinophil Stool samples are used to detect the eggs

 

  1. causes of LMN Lesions except A. bells palsy B. multiple sclerosis C. sarcoidosis↙↙↙ D. gullenbarrsyn. E. leprosy

 

  1. Meigs syndrome is xterised by___except A .rt pleural effusion B. ascites C. benign ovarian tumor D. lt pleural effusion↙↙↙ E. none of the above Characterised by benign ovarian tumour, right pleural effusion and aspires It rarely involves the left and usually unilateral

 

  1. the following are bronchoprovocative test except A. methacholine B. exercise C. hyperventilation with cold air D. exhaled NO E none of d above↙↙↙

 

  1. The following are causes of increased serum alkaline phosphatase except A.Bile duct obstruction B.Hyperparathyroidism C.Prostatecarcinoma D.Infectiousmononucleosis↙↙↙ E.Pregnancy(3rdtrimester)

It occurs in pregnancy

 

  1. The following DNA viruses are naked(without) an envelope except A.Adenovirus B.Parvovirus C.Hepadnavirus↙↙↙ D.Papovavirus E.Non of dabove Hepadna virus is an enveloped virus, others are non enveloped

 

  1. The following is true about diazepam except A. it’s a benzodiazepine B. may be used in the treatment of epilepsy C. used in anxiety disorders D. can be given 3hourly in certain conditions E. can be used continuously for 2months↙↙↙

 

  1. Concerning digoxin A. Rx of choice for ventricular extrasystole B. May cause xanthopsia↙↙↙ C. Is not excreted by the kidneys D. Adverse effects are reduced by hypocalcemia E. Must not be coadministered with ACEIs

 

  1. The following are true of gastric hypomotility except A. Is commonly assoc with DM B.Is a risk factor for GERDx C. Is a feature of generalized scleroderma D. Occasionally responds to erythromycin E. Is often secondary to duodenal ulcer↙↙↙

 

Answer is E DM causes gastroparesis hence hypomotility leading to stasis which predispose to gerd acid accumulation. Generalized or systemic scleroderma causes gastric stasis. Erythromycin can be used for treatment

 

683.Which vascular rupture will cause extradural collection following a blow to the head A. Cavernous sinus B. Emissary vein C. Middle meningeal Artery↙↙↙

  1. Middle cerebral artery E. Superior saggital sinus

 

Answer is C Common point following the blow is the pterion which is the land mark for middle meningeal artery

 

  1. The following are true concerning the spinal cord except A. Is the elongated cylindrical part of the spinal axis B. Occupies the whole of the vertebral canal up to 3months of fetal life C. At birth extends to the 5th lumbar vertebrae↙↙↙ D. In adult life it’s upper border is foramen magnum E. In adult life it’s lower border is the lower of the first lumbar Embryo the spinal cord occupies the full length of the vertebral canal Birth L3 Adult L1

 

  1. Citrate is a useful anticoagulant because of it’s ability to A. Buffer basic groups of coagulation factors B. Bind factor XII C. Bind vit k D. Chelate calcium↙↙↙ E. Be slowly metabolized

 

  1. Which one of these is a sign of coarctation of the aorta? A. Absence radiofemoral delay in the pulses B. rib notching↙↙↙ C. Absence of bruit normally heard over the scapular in this region D. Ankle oedema E. Atrial fibrillation There’s rib notching of the 3rd and 4th ribs from collaterals

 

  1. About the anterior chamber, which is wrong? A. Anteriorly, the middle, choriodal layer curls away from the wall of the eyeball and forms a London slender structure called the ciliary body B. This spongy network of tissue produces the aqueous humour(AQ), the jelly-like fluid that fills the small anterior chamber of the eye located behind the cornea and in front of the lens↙↙↙ C.The AQ nourishes the posterior aspect of the cornea and the anterior aspect of the lens D. The AQ humour helps to maintain the shape of the eyeball E. Abnormal build up of pressure can result in glaucoma. The aqueous humour is watery not jelly like

 

  1. Which of the following arrangements of muscle fibers in skeletal muscle will be capable of exerting the greatest power? A.Fusiform B.Straporribbon C.Multipennate↙↙↙ D.Bipennate

 

691

The following drugs cause jaundice, except? A. Corticosteroid ✔✔✔  B. Flucloxacillin   C. Oral contraceptive   D Isoniazid   E. Phenobarbitone

 

692  Which of these is not a process a pain pathway?  A. Transduction  B. Translation ↙↙↙ C. Transmission  D. Modulation  E. Perception.

 

693  Which of the following statement is true in relation to vomiting?   A vomiting occuring 2 hours after a suspicious meal is indicative of salmonella poisoning   B vomiting in association with headache is not a feature of migraine   C vomiting associated with weight loss can be indicative of malignancy  ↙↙↙ D vomiting usually precedes the pain of biliary colic   E vomiting is not a feature of MI

 

694  Which of the following is not involved in mindfulness?  A. Observation  B. Curiosity  C. Flexibility  D. None of the above ↙↙↙ E. All of the above.

 

695   Regarding teratogens?   A Trimethoprim, pyrimethamine and methotrexate(antofolate) cause neural tube defects  ↙↙↙ B ACEI will result in VSD   C fetus is extremely susceptible in the 9th-10th week embryogenesis

D mental retardation is not associated with alcohol   E renal damage is associated with tetracycline during organogenesis 1-8th week is embryo genesis

 

696  Concerning Clostridia, all are correct, except?   A. They are gram positive spore forming obligate aerobic bacilli  ↙↙↙ B clostridium perfringes produces lacithinase, a phospholipase 88  C. clostridium perfringes produces toxin that can cause hemolysis   D. Clostridium difficile produces an enterotoxin and a cytotoxic   E. Heat labile toxin that inhibits Acetylchol They are anaerobic

 

697  The following statement are correct about protozoa, except?   A. Giardia lambla can be treated with metronidazole   B. Cryptosporidium causes severe Diarrhoea in AIDS patients and mild watery Diarrhoea in non immune compromised patients ↙↙↙  C. Infection with trypanosome brucei species may affect the cns   D. P. vivax has 48 hours Ife cycle   E. P. Ovale

 

699  regarding burns?   A acid burns are usually considered more dangerous than alkalis   B shock due to oligaemia results in chronic renal failure in 2 weeks   C acute dilatation of the stomach in large burns is a late complication   D anaemia, hyponatremia, paralytic ileus and hyperkalemia may occur  ↙↙↙ E massive oedema and destruction of lung parenchyma may result from facial burns Option C looks correct too

D, only true statement

 

700  Of the following, the virus that is most resistant to chemical and physical agents are the ones that causes  A. Mumps  B. Measles  C. Influenza  D. Serum hepatitis  E. Polio↙↙↙

 

701  S. Pneumonia is the most common cause of the following, except   A meningitis   B otitis media in children   C otitis externa in adults  ↙↙↙ D pneumonia  E sinusitis Otitis externa commonly caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa, S. Aureus

 

702 Following a major burn injury: a. Intravenous H2-receptor antagonists should not be given. b. Fluid requirements are greatest within the first 2 hrs of injury. c. Prophylactic antibiotics should not be given on admission. d. Pain is usually worse in the less severely burn areas.↙↙↙ e. Pulmonary edema only occurs if the lung is injured

 

703 Of the following antiepileptic agents, which is associated with the highest risk of causing psychosis?

  1. Ethosuximide b. Phenobarbital
  2. Vigabatrin✔✔✔ d. Valproic acid e. Phenytoin

 

 

704 Paralysis of…Muscle would likely cause a patient with Bell’s palsy (facial nerve paralysis) to experience food collection in his/her oral vestibule  A orbicularis oris  B mentalis  C zygomaticus major  D buccinators↙↙↙  E masseters

 

705 These are correct about the thymus gland except?  A is an important component of the lymphatic system  B usually lies behind the manubrium  C is very rich in basophils ↙↙↙ D may extend to about the 4th coastal cartilage in the anterior mediastinum  E after puberty is gradually replaced by fat

713  Temp for blood storage for transfusion A. -4 to 0 degree B. +22 degree C. +23 degree Ans is 4 to 6degree Celsius

 

716 The following clinical disorders may be suggested on examination of the hand except: A. Trisomy 21 anomaly B. Pneumoconiosis↙↙↙ C. Liver cirrhosis D. Iron deficiency anaemia E. Thyrotoxicosis

 

718 The following are features of hyperthyroidism  A irritability  B digestive system hypomotility↙↙↙ C intolerance to heat D sweating and panic attack E hair loss and fatigue

720 which of the following statements about e.coli is incorrect A.heat labile toxin is antigenic

b.can invade  intestinal mucosa c.is important cause of diarrhea d.produces enterotoxin

e.infection shld be treated with fluid and electrolytes replacement✔✔✔ Should be treated with antibiotics too

 

723 Which of the following is not associated with rota virus infection?  a. Normal WBC count b. Metabolic acidosis

  1. Hypernatremia d. WBC in stool microscopy↙↙↙ e. Lactic acidosis No WBC or red cells in the stool

 

725 Which of the following will not be included in the differential diagnosis of red eye? A. Acute Iritis B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis C. Acute open angle glaucoma↙↙↙ D. Blunt trauma to the eye ball E. Scleritis it’s closed angle that causes red eye not open angle…Also chronic angle glaucoma patients are usually asymptomatic and usually difficult to identify.

 

726 A patient with Rheumatoid arthritis who has been taking aspirin with a normocytic normochromic anaemia. All of the following are correct about this anaemia, except  A it will respond to treatment with VitB12↙↙↙  B Could be because of blood loss

C MCV of 91  D elevated reticulocyte  E decreased hematocrit and Hb level

 

727 The following should be considered as possible sign of positive exercise test, except  A ST segment depression  B exercise induced hypotension  C exercise induced ventricular tachycardia  D exercise induced ventricular tachycardia  E leg pain at peak exercise All are correct…. Another form of the ques : The following should be considered as possible sign of positive exercise test, except  A. ST segment depression  B. exercise induced hypotension  C. exercise induced ventricular tachycardia

  1. Lack of adequate tachycardic response to exercise✔✔✔ E. Leg pain at peak exercise

 

728 The following are true concerning complete blood count, except?  A Hb of 10.0g/dl would be considered normal in a pregnant woman ↙↙↙ B Polycythemia rubra vera is usually indicated by elevation not only of Hb but also of wbc and platelet  C low platelet count could indicate a flare up of SLE  D high platelet can be seen in GI bleeding  E raised MCV is usually in significant alcohol excess

Polycythemia rubra vera refers to a myeloproliferative disorder in which the bone marrow makes too many blood cells…there’s abnormal high blood cells and there may also be high numbers of platelets and white blood cells SLE can have a dangerous reduction in the no of RBCs, WBCs, platelets… Some acute bleeding loss can cause reactive thrombocytosis Anaemia in pregnant women –>>Hb is less than 11g/dl MCV can increase with heavy drinking.

 

729 All are functions of the recovery position, except?  A to prevent the tongue from obstructing the airway  B to enhance recovery  C to minimize the risk of aspiration of gastric content  D to enable CPR↙↙↙  E to maintain straight airway

 

730 Ptosis may be a feature of the following except  A cobra bite  B Horner’s syndrome  C abducens nerve↙↙↙  D oculomotor nerve palsy  E Myasthenia gravis

 

731 Which of the following medication is preferred best in bronchial asthma exacerbation  A LABA  B leukotriene modifiers  C inhaled corticosteroid ↙↙↙ D theophylline

E no additional therapy

 

732 Complete denervation of the small intestine would be expected to A. Increase rating rate of intestinal peristalsis B. Decrease rating rate of peristalsis

  1. Have little effect on the resting rate of intestinal peristalsis✔✔✔ D. Cause intestinal obstruction E. Cause peristalsis to become more chaotic and irregular.

 

733 The transpyloric plane  A lies on a line connecting left and right 10th costal cartilages  B lies at the level of T12 C lies at the origin of SMA off the aorta ↙↙↙ D 2cm below the xiphisternum

 

734 The liver is responsible for the production of the ff except  A. Bilirubin↙↙↙ B. Prealbumin C. Fibrinogen D. Urea E. Clotting factor VII

 

735 One of the ff isn’t involved in renal control of sodium  A. Aldosterone B. Angiotensin ll

  1. ADH↙↙↙ D. ANP E. Active transport

 

736 Which of the ff has an equilibrium potential that is closest to resting membrane  potential  A. Magnesium  B. Potassium ↙↙↙ C. Calcium  D. Bicarbonate  E. Chloride Chloride has the same value  with resting membrane potential of -70

 

739 Which of the following is unlikely to be present in a patient with Klumpke’s paralysis? A. The arm is held in abduction↙↙↙ B. There is paralysis of the small muscles of the hand C. There is lack of sensation over the ulnar side of the arm D. Horner’s syndrome may occur E. The arm is held in adduction

 

740 Which of the following is the least common developmental abnormality of the kidneys? A. Pelvic kidney B. Congenital absence of kidney↙↙↙ C. Horse shoe kidney D. Congenital polycystic kidney R. Aberrant renal artery

 

742 The following drug can cause parkinsonism  A chlorpromazine  B benxhexol↙↙↙

C resperidone  D metoclopramide  E haoperidol Odd one out…

 

743 The following are true in screening test? A. It form the basis of therapy B. Performed on apparently healthy individuals C. Performed by sensitivity and specificity D. Applicable on large number of people

  1. Performed on diseases amenable to treatment✔✔✔ Odd one out

 

745 The following effects on cardiac output are correct except: A. Reduced in sleep↙↙↙ B. Reduced in rapid arrythmias C. Not affected when eating↙↙↙

  1. Increased in pregnancy E. Increased in anxiety states Unchanged during sleep and increased when eating

 

746 The following are features of anaemia  A Tiredness  B Pallor of mucous membrane  C Palmer erythema ↙↙↙ D Furred coated tongue  E breathlessness on exertion Odd one out

 

750 Blood for transfusion is considered fresh if A.It is only less than one hr after collection B.it is obtained from a virgin (first time) donor C.it is within 4days of collection↙↙↙ D.The blood bank staff claims so E.it is within the first 28 days. Blood less than 24hrs from the time of collection

 

754 the term renal autoregulation refers to a.the kidney does not require bld flow to sustain its active transport b.d kidney contains baroreceptors that contribute to the regulation of c.o c.renal bld flow is relatively constant over a wide range of systemic pressures↙↙↙ d.renal bld flow is not affected by activation of the symp.nerves e.c+d

 

 

C ✅✅

 

756 the appearance of large amounts of ammonia in urine is xteristic of renal response to a.resp acidosis b.resp alkalosis c.acidosis resulting frm pancreatic d.m d.alkalosis resulting frm gastric vomitting e.a+c↙↙↙

  1. The following are sites for embryonic tumors except A kidney B Mesentery↙↙↙ C Retina  D Lung E Liver

 

 

759 causes of fibrinogen deficiency a.premature seperation of d placenta b.sepsis c.hemophilia d thrombocytopaenia purpura e.a and b only are correct↙↙↙

 

785  Which of these may not be a cause of secondary hypertension   A renal artery stenosis

B renal cell carcinoma❓❓❓ C cushing’s syndrome   D pregnancy  E oral contraceptive pill

786  Regarding the cavernous sinus   A contains the optic nerve   B surrounds the internal carotid artery ↙↙↙

C lies in the posterior cranial fossa   D contains the mandibular division of the trigeminal(V) nerve   E drains directly into the sigmoid sinus

 

Ans is B…✅✅✅ only correct option The carvenous sinus contains the internal carotid artery, occulomotor, abducens, ophthalmic and maxillary branches of trigeminal nerve, trochlear nerve  It lies in the middle cranial fossa

 

787  Which of the following diseases has the longest incubation period?

  1. Mumbs ✔✔✔ b. Measles c. Diptheria d. Chicken pox  e. Poliomyelitis

 

Measles 7 to 14 days(medscape) Mumps 16 to 18 days(cdc) Polio: Non paralytic 3 to 6 days(cdc)             Paralytic 7 to 21 days

 

Diphtheria 2 to 5 days(cdc) Chicken pox 14 to16days(cdc) *cdc–centre for disease control*

 

790  the following are GI adnexae xcept  a.pancreas   b.kidneys ↙↙↙ c.appendix  d.gaĺlbladder  e.liver

 

791  Blood brain barrier is formed by which of the following?  A. Fenestrations between brain capillary endothelium  B. Occluding junctions between  brain capillary endothelial cells ↙↙↙ C. Astrocytic foot processes surrounding blood vessels entering the  brain parenchymal  D. The basement membrane associated with the glia limitans  E. Microglial activity

 

B is correct✅✅

 

792  Which of the following is not associated with pancytopenia?  A. Disseminated tuberculosis  B. Overwhelming sepsis  C. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinaemia ↙↙↙ D. Myelofibrosis  E. SLE Causes paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria as against paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinaemia

 

794  Sodium reabsorption in renal tubules is influenced by   A Growth hormone   B Aldosterone  ↙↙↙ C Thyroxine   D ADH   E Parathyroid hormone,

 

795  Concerning phenyl ketouria which is advised  A. To exclude diet containing tyrosine  B. To exclude diet containing phenylalanine  ↙↙↙ C to exclude diet containing tryptophan

 

796  Which of these mnemonics is not used in psychosocial medicine   A. Clear  ↙↙ B. Affect ↙↙ C. Fife  D. Bathe  E. Learn

 

A and B are not ✅✅

 

797  Which of the following IVFs is isotonic in content but hypotonic in the body after administration?  A. 5%DW ↙↙↙ B. 2.5%DW  C. 5%D in saline  D. 2.5%D in saline   E. 0.45%N/S

 

A is correct ✅✅

 

798

Drug efficacy can be affected by  A Time of the day drug is taken  B Taken before or after meal  C Content of meal  D Colour of drug↙↙↙

 

D is correct ✅✅ Odd one out

 

802  One of the following does not take part in inspiration   A serratus anterior   B internal intercostal mzl  ↙↙ C external intercostal mzl   D rectus abdominis↙↙

 

B and D is correct ✅✅

 

803  the best drug for the treatment of strongyloides is  a. Ivermectin ↙↙↙ b. Albendazole  c. Mebendazole  d. Levamizole  e. Praziquantel

 

A is correct ✅ repeat

 

804  . When mosquitoes bite, they ingest   A. Merozoites  B. Schizonts  C. Sporozoites  D. Gametocytes ↙↙↙ E. Ookinetes

 

D is correct ✅✅

 

they ingest Gametocytes and inject Sporozoites

 

805   Functions of PTH Doesn’t include   A. Mobilization of ca from bone  B. Enhancing Absorption of ca from intestine   C. suppression of ca loss in urine   D. Suppression of phosphate loss in urine  ↙↙↙ E. Stimulation of osteoclasts to reabsorb bone mineral Causes hypophosphatemia…

 

806  The anterior abdominal wall generally  A serves as a cover to the abdominal cavity T B is divided into 8 quadrants  F C is the location of most digestive organs  T D the lumbar is not a region  F E the left inguinal is a quadrant F

 

T F T F F  The abdomen has 4 quadrants (right upper and lower, left upper and lower) Has 9 regions

 

808  Ff are true of prader Willi syndrome except   A low muscle tone  B short stature  C deletion of chromosome 15 on the maternal xsome ↙↙↙ D incomplete sexual development   R none of the above

 

C is correct ✅✅ On the paternal chromosome not maternal

812.Fastest route for drug absorption. A.Rectal B.Sublingual C.IV D.Inhalation↙↙↙ E.Topical

 

813.It is true to say that the following physiological changes occur in the elderly,except. A.Increase in fat mass B.decrease in visceral fat↙↙↙

C.decrease in lean muscle mass D.decrease in bone density. E.decrease in general motility There’s increase in visceral fat

 

814.Class of antihypertensive include all except. A.X-adrenergic agonist↙↙↙ B.centrally acting C.Angiotensin receptor blockers D.renin antagonist E.calcium channel blockers Renin  inhibitors like Aliskiren

 

815.Concerning the pancreas. A.Glycogen mobilizes stored glucose,amino acids and fatty acids B.Zymogen granules contain trysin and chymotripsin↙↙↙ C.It is the main source of enzyme for digesting polysaccarides and proteins D.It regulates the exocrine function via somastatin and other hormones↙↙↙ E.Islet of langherhans secretions are secreted in the linen of the acinus

 

817.Which antihypertensive would you not want to use in hypertensive encephalopathy A.nicardipine B.esmolol C.clevidipine D.hydralazine↙↙↙ E.labetalol

 

819.Lymphocytosis is a regular finding in all except A.mumps B.rubella C.pertussi D.infectious mononucleosis E.dermatitis herpetiform↙↙↙

 

822.The ff are true concerning gastric hypomotility,except A.Is commonly associated with DM B.It is a risk for GERD

C.Is a feature of generalized scleroderma(Systemic scleroderma) D.Occasionally respond to Erythromycin E.Is often secondary to duodenal↙↙↙

 

823.EEG at rest with eyes closed A.Beta rhythm B.Gamma rhythm C.Alpha rhythm ↙↙↙ D.Lambda rhythm E.Omega rhythm

 

825.Dermatophyte occur in  A.hairy skin  B.non hairy skin C.nails D.All of the 827.All are bacterial infections except A.Erysipela B.Boil C.Carbuncule D.Kerion↙↙↙ Kerion is a fungal infection

above↙↙↙ E.None of the above.

  1. Which of the following tremors has the highest frequency? a) Cerebellar b) Parkinson c) Essential↙↙↙

Essential tremor: 4Hz to 12Hz Physiological tremor: 8Hz to 12Hz Cerebellar tremor: <5Hz Resting tremor: 3Hz to 7Hz Dystonic tremor: 7hz

 

  1. Which is a long acting b1 agonist a.Salbutamol b. Salmeteol d. Albuterol e. Formeterol

 

Restructured ques: 834. Which is a longer acting b2 agonist a.Salbutamol b. Salmeteol d. Albuterol  e. Formeterol↙↙↙ All the above named drugs are Beta 2 agonists. B and E are both long acting. Salbutamol and albuterol is same drug. Formoterol has a longer half life of 10hrs Salmeterol has a half life of 5 hours

842 Where does immunoglobulin switching from IgM to IgG primarily occur? A. Bone marrow B. Peripheral blood

  1. Germinal centre✔✔✔ D. Thymus E. Splenic red pulp

 

843 Concerning vitamins, which of the following statements is wrong? A. Vitamin B1 deficiency can cause Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome B. Niacin deficiency leads to pellagra C. Vitamin B6 is a cofactor for carboxylation↙↙↙ D. Folic acid is important for the synthesis of nitrogenous bases of DNA and RNA E. Cheilosis is a feature of vit. B2 deficiency

 

Final Answer: C  Carboxylation requires vit K while Decarboxylation requires B vitamins..so C is the incorrect statement ..

846 Thyroid hormone stimulates oxygen consumption in the: a. Brain

  1. Kidney ✔✔✔ c. Uterus d. Testes e. Spleen

 

847 Which of the following helminthic can be found in the lumen of  appendix?

 

A Trichuria trichuris  B Ascaris  C Enterobius ↙↙↙ D Hookworm E Tapeworm

 

848 The narrowest part of the osophagus is:

 

  1. Gastroesophageal junction b.Where it is crosses by aorta c. At d oesophageal hiatus d.Where it is crossed by the left bronchus e. At its beginning↙↙↙ The oesophagus has 3 points of constriction ***Pharyngo esophageal junction ***The point where the arch of aorta and left main bronchus crosses the oesophagus ***Gastroesophageal junction The narrowest is at its begining. ..pharyngo esophageal junction

 

850 Presence of larva in an old stool is a diagnostic of:

 

  1. A) pinworm B) hook worm C) s.stercoralis↙↙↙ D) Ascaris E) t.trichuri

 

851  Rhesus blood group antigens include the following except   A. E   B. e   C. D   D. S  ↙↙↙

  1. c Has C, c, E, e, D No d

853  Thyroid hormone are stored as   A free T3  B free T4  C free T3/T4  D thyroglobulin↙↙↙

 

854  Regarding contents of the abdominal cavity  A. The duodenum has no mesentery  B. The jejunum and ileum are mobile  C. The ascending and descending colon are mobile  D. Small intestine has transverse base  E. The ligaments of the liver give great support to the organ↙↙↙

 

Final answer E✅✅✅

857  Painless red eyes   A Stye  B Iritis  C Blepharitis   D Pterygium   E Pingueculum↙↙ Others causes painful eyes

 

858  Which of the following causes rectal bleeding in children?   A Trichuria trichuris  ↙↙↙ B Ascaris   C Entrobius

D Hookworm  E S.Stercoralis

860  The blood element essential for homeostasis  A. Platelet  B. Fibrinogen  C. Thrombus  D. WBCs ↙↙↙ E. X-mas factor Odd one out

863  Which of the following is not a side effect of digoxin  A. Hallucination   B. Arrythmia  C. Intestinal ischemia  D. Neutropenia ↙↙↙ E. Visual disturbance

 

Final answer D✅✅✅ All are side effects

 

864  The following are true concerning gastric hypomotility, except  A. Is commonly associated with DM  B. Is a risk factor for GERD  C. Is a feature of generalized scleroderma  D. Occasionally respond to erythromycin  E. Often 2° to duodenal ulcer.↙↙↙

 

Final answer E✅✅✅

 

865  which of the following conditions is not a side effect of heparin overdose  a.hyperkalaemia  b.alopecia  c.hypoglycemia ↙↙↙ d.thrombocytopenia  e.hyperlipidaemia

866  type A personality disorder is assoc  with a risk of   a.anxiety disorder  b.htn  c.cancer  d.obesity

e.CAD✔✔✔

 

867  One of the following is not descriptive study   A Cohort  B  Case – control   C  Field trials  D  Cross- sectional   E. Ecological All are analytical studies except C Analytic: Cohort study Case control study

Case crossover study Cross sectional study Before after study Ecologic study Descriptive study: Case report Case series Descriptive epidemiology

 

868  Regarding sexual dysfunction in males, which of these is least common?  A. Primary erectile dysfunction  B. Secondary erectile dysfunction  C. Premature ejaculation  D. Delayed ejaculation ↙↙↙ E. Idiopathic

870  A sphygmomanometer is put around a man’s arm and the cuff inflated. The man will start to feel pain in the arm in

  1. 10s B. 20s C. 5s  ??? D. 4min   E. 15s

 

871 Distinct microvilli are present on all the following except A. Sustentacular cells of the olfactory mucosa B. Mucous cells of salivary glands↙↙↙ C. Follicular cells of thyroid gland D. Absorptive cells of the intestinal epithelium E. Cells lining the proximal convoluted tubules of the kidney

 

872 Factors affecting GFR include A. Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure  B. Contraction of the glomerular efferent arterioles C .Dilation of the glomerular efferent arterioles D. Respiratory alkalosis↙↙↙ E. Sodium depletion E does as well…Decreased sodium to macula densa cells triggers increased RAAS and subsequent decreases in GFR

874 concerning red cell antigens,which is incorrect

a.they can be either sugars or proteins and they determine a persons bld grp b.ova 400 red cell antigens hav been identified c.antibodies to ABO antigens are found at birth↙↙↙ d.antigens of rh bld grp are proteins e.a persin with d bld grp o has neither a nor b antigen

 

875 The following are xtics of pterygium except  A Is at the same level ad the cornea  B It is wing shaped  C Is a benign conjunctival growth  D Does not involve tarsal conjunctiva  E It involves the palpebral conjunctiva↙↙↙ It involves the bulbar conjunctiva

 

877 Has maximum water permeability in nephron?  A Collecting duct B Ascending loop of henle

C Proximal tubule✔✔✔ D Descending loop of henle E Distal tubule

 

878 Which of the following concerning d prostrate is incorrect? a. It is continuous superiorly with d neck of d bladder b. It is bounded laterally by levator ani c. A shallow posterior median groove is felt in d normal prostate↙↙↙ d. There are two capsules ( true and false) in a normal prostate

  1. There are usually three capsules in benign hypertrophy of d prostate The posterior median groove is not shallow. ..it’s preserved in a normal prostate but can be lost in prostatic hypertrophy

 

880 haematopoietic stem cell transplantation is suitable in all except a. acute lymphoblastic leukaemia b. SCA c. non Hodgkin lymphoma d. chediak higashi syndrome e. None of the above↙↙↙ Suitable in all

 

881 Nevirapine  A is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor B causes severe type 1 hypersensitivity  C can be used for PEP   D use of mono therapy leads to development of resistance↙↙↙ It’s a non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

 

883 low calcium and high phosphate is   seen in:   A. Hyperparathyroidism  B. Hypoparathyroidism ↙↙↙ C. Hyperthyroidism  D. Hypothyroidism

 

Answer B✅✅✅

 

884 Meckel’s diverticulum  A can be seen in 2% of the population  B may contain ectopic tissue  C can cause bowel obstruction   D in symptomatic patients its commoner in females ↙↙↙ E its about 2feet from ileocecal valve, Rule of twos: 2% of population  2inches long 2feet from the ileocecal valve 2times commoner in males 2 types of ectopic tissue- gastric, pancreatic

 

885 The principle of electrophoresis is based on: A. Adsorption B. Absorption C. Partition D. Charge ↙↙↙ E. Solubility

Concerning the cardiac cycle A. Isovolumetric contraction is the period between mitral valve closure and aortic valve opening↙↙↙ B. Isovolumetric relaxation immediately follows isovolumetric contraction. C. Rapid filling is the period just after mitral valve closure D. S3 can be heard during systole and its normal in elderly individuals E. The splitting of S2 is pathological splitting of S2 is not pathological. .it’s is wide splitting of S2 that is pathological

 

A is the only correct statement

895  haematopoietic stem cell transplantation is suitable in all except  a acute lymphoblastic leukaemia  b SCA  c non Hodgkin lymphoma  d chediak higashi syndrome None of the above…used in all

 

896  Factors affecting GFR include  A. Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure   B. Contraction of the glomerular efferent arterioles  C .Dilation of the glomerular efferent arterioles  D. Respiratory alkalosis↙↙↙  E. Sodium depletion

 

897  Concerning the spleen,   A.  The red pulp consist of plasma cells  B. The white pulp is essentially a lymph node ↙↙↙ C. The marginal  zone is well defined vascular  space  D. The medial relation is the spleenic flexure of the colon  E.  The inferior relation is formed by the 8th to 11th ribs

 

899  The following is a muscle of facial expression, EXCEPT?  (a)  Piriformis ↙↙↙

(b)  Frontalis  (c)  Orbicularis oris  (d)  Orbicularis oculi  (e)  Medial pterygoid↙↙↙

 

900  Complete denervation of the small intestine would be expected to  A. Increase the resting rate of intestinal peristalsis  B. Decrease the resting rate of peristalsis

  1. Have little effect on the resting rate of intestinal peristalsis ✔✔✔ D. Cause intestinal obstruction E. Cause peristalsis to become chaotic and irregular.

 

898   Innate immunity,    A. Is specific   B. Develops memory  C. Requires previous  encounter   D.  Is present at birth  ↙↙↙ E. Exclude  barriers as skin

 

901  Alternative/complementary therapies include the following except  A. Fasting  B. Faith healing  C. Mindful exercise  D. Chirolexy ↙↙↙ E. Reflexology

 

902  The following are risk factors for gastric cancinoma except  A. Smoking  B. Chronic atrophic gastritis  C. Blood group O ↙↙↙ D. Diet (eg smoked fish and meats)  E. H. pylori infection.

908  inhibition of bld clotting by oral anticoagulants is due to interference of  a.factoe x  b.factor ix  c.factor vii  d.factor iii ↙↙↙ e.factor ii

D✅✅✅, anticoagulant inhibit vitamin K dependent factor, 1972

 

909  Aminoglycosides antibiotics are associated with all the following side effects except   A ototoxicity   B neuromuscular blockade  C nephrotoxicity   D hepatotoxicity  ↙↙↙ E optic nerve dysfunction

 

910  the larvae of dracunculus enters d circulation tru  a.stomach b.lungs  c.intestine ↙↙↙ d.mouth  e.skin

 

911 the principal energy source for d hrt of a healthy fasting subject is

A.FFA↙↙↙ B.GLUCOSE C LACTATE AND PYRUVATE D AA E.POLYPEPTIDES

 

912 Which of this isn’t a colloid A, guanidil↙↙↙ B, dextran C, albumin D, 20%albumin E, haesterol 10%

 

A ✅✅✅

 

913 Type 1 error  A, reject true null hypothesis↙↙↙ B, accept true null hypothesis C, accept false null hypothesis D, reject false null hypothesis. Use the mnemonics RETHY AFAH Reject True hypothesis, Accept False Hypothesis

916 common causes of jaundice in west african subregion  a.rhesus iso immunization b.abo incompatibility c.hereditary spherocytosis↙↙↙ d.prematurity e.septicaemia

 

C ✅✅✅ odd one out

 

917 The following statement(s) about fat absorption are true  A. If fats are shaken with water at 37°C the droplet size is greater when bile salt is also present↙↙↙  B. Chylomicra are small droplets of fat found in the small intestinal lumen  C. Most bile salt is absorbed in the duodenum  D. The breakdown products of dietary fats are resynthesized in the intestinal cells and pass into the lacteals  E. Deficiency of fat absorption can lead to poor absorption of the vitamins of the B group

 

918 Which of the following is not a side effect of digoxin A. Hallucination  B. Arrythmia C. Intestinal ischemia

  1. Neutropenia✔✔✔ E. Visual disturbance

920  Alkaline phosphatase level is increased in the following conditions except A. Cholestasis B. Migraine headache↙↙↙ C. Adolescence D.3rd trimester of pregnancy E. Multiple myeloma

 

921  Which of the following is not a side effect of digoxin A. Hallucination  B. Arrythmia C. Intestinal ischemia

  1. Neutropenia✔✔✔ E. Visual disturbance

931  Which vitamin inhibit wound healing  A vitamin A  B vit  b  C vitamin c  D vitamin E ↙↙↙ E vitamin K

 

932

Hyperstimulation of carotid sinus gives resultant  A tachcardia  B bradycardia ↙↙↙ C tachypnea  D hypercapnea  E

 

Final Answer B✏️✏️

 

933  Effect of SN stimulation on the heart  A) Decrease rate of SA node  B) Decrease rate of cardiac pace maker  C)Decrease heart rate   D) Increase cardiac output↙↙↙

 

Final answer D repeat ✏️✏️

 

934  ConcerningTFT  A. TSH is elevated in thyrotoxicosis  B. In thyrotoxicosis, free T3 is increased while free T4 is decreased ↙↙↙ C. TSH is reduced in primary hypothyroidism  D. TSH levels will not usually discriminate hypo,hyper and euthyroidism  E. Free T3 and T4 may be normal or low in primary hypothyroidism

 

Final Answer B✏️✏️ Only correct option

 

935  The mechanism of renal hypertension include   A. Reduction in the pressure in afferent arterioles  B. Non release of renin from JGA  C. Decrease in angiotensin 2  D. Renal hyperperfusion  E. Chelation of nitric oxide by superoxide↙↙↙

 

Final Answer E✏️✏️

 

936 Number of nephron in the kidney   A 1million ↙↙↙ B 2million  C 3million  D 4million  E 5million

 

Final answer A✏️✏️

 

937  Which type of vit A produces glycoprotein  A beta carotene  B retinoic acid  C retinol

D all the above✔✔✔

 

Final Answer D✏️✏️

 

938  Which if these statement is false  A hypomagnesemia worsens digoxin toxicity  B CNS complication can arise correction of sodium disorder

C hyperkalamia presents with by hyperreflexia ✔✔✔ D altered Sensorium can be a treatment of hypernatraemia  E Hyperkalaemia presents with hypo reflexia

 

939  Pectoralis major nerve supply  A lateral rectus nerve  B med rectus n  C lat/med pectoral n ↙↙↙ D long thoracic nerve A

 

940  ALP levels are elevated in the following conditions, except  A. Cholestasis  B. Migraine headache ↙↙↙ C. Adolescence  D. Third trimester of pregnancy  E. Multiple myeloma

 

Final Answer B✏️✏️

 

942  The following organisms are transmitted faeco-orally except  A. Dracunculus medinensis  B. Ascaris lumbricoidis  C. Enterobius vermicularis  D. Ancylostoma duodenale ↙↙↙ E. Trichuris trichuria Ancylostoma is via skin penetration

945  According to Wallace rule of nines the percentage burns for trunk is  a 4.5   b 9   c18   d 36  ↙↙↙ e 1 Head and neck 9 Trunk: Ant 18 Post 18 total 36 Arm 9% each Perineum and genitalia 1% Legs 18% each

950  Concerning body iron, which of the following is correct?

 

  1. Only 50-70mmol of total body iron are circulating in plasma, all bound to ferritin B. Iron absorption is an active process in the lower small intestine C. Urinary excretion is maximum if the protein bound is water soluble  D. Iron absorption is increased in megaloblastic anaemia
  2. About 10% is stored in the recticuloendothelial tissue ❓❓❓

 

  1. ,.bound to transferrin(false ) .B… .upper small intestine precisely duodenum. (False) D…False( increased Iron absorption occurs in conditions with ineffective erythropoiesis) E…a small fraction

 

  1. Common test in PHC A. Urinalysis T B. Coagulation  F C. PT  T D. Sickling test  F Final ans TFTF
  2. Blood smear for no with 2 dots….. A. P.malariae B. Luemogini C. Ovale D. Vivax E. Falciparum↙↙↙
  3. The release of one of the following mediators is not sttimulated by TNF A. Leukotrines B. Corticotrophines↙↙↙ C. Prostaglandins D. Interleukin 9 E. Interleukin 1
  4. Pulmonary blood flow is greater than aortic blood flow in A. The Foetus
  5. A normal adult male C. Left to Right ventricular shunt↙↙↙ D. Right to left ventricular shunt E. Right Ventricular failure

 

  1. Effects of insulin on the muscle include A. Decrease glucose entry B. Decrease amino acid uptake C. Increase glycogen synthesis↙↙↙ D. Increase protein catabolism E. Decrease potassium intake The major effects of insulin on muscle and adipose tissue are: (1) Carbohydrate metabolism: (a) it increases the rate of glucose transport across the cell membrane,  (b) it increases the rate of glycolysis by increasing hexokinase and 6-phosphofructokinase activity,  (c) it stimulates the rate of glycogen synthesis
  2. Corticosteroids may not be useful in one of the following A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Sarcoidosis
  3. Acquired hemolytic anaemia ✔✔✔ D. Thrombocytopaenic purpura E. Viral hepatitis 963. Angular stomatitis is a recognized feature of A. Niacin B. Thiamine C. Pyridoxine D. Pantothenic acid
  4. Riboflavin✔✔✔

 

  1. Concerning the PNS A. Has craniosacral outflow↙↙↙ B. Ganglia are far away from organ C. Adrenal medulla transmitter is 80% adrenaline D. Postganglionic transmitter is Noradrenaline E. Nervi erigentes is from S1 to S3
  2. Epinephrine causes A. Glycolysis↙↙↙ B. Glycogenesis C. Glycogenolysis↙↙↙ D. Gluconeogenesis↙↙↙ E. Lipogenesis epinephrine acts like glucagon in opposing insulin…once u see epinephrine think of actions of glucagon Epinephrine causes glycogenolysis and lipolysis

 

  1. Which of the following substances cross the BBB A. Testosterone B. Insulin C. Oestrogen D. All of the above ↙↙↙

 

971  THE FOLLOWING R CAUSES OF HYPOKALEMIA EXCEPT  A. INSULIN ADMINISTRATION  B. ADRENALINE INFUSION  C. ALKALOSIS  D. TOLUENE TOXICITY

  1. DIGOXIN OD✔✔✔ Digoxin causes hyperkalaemia

972  .Which of the following isn’t a recognised cause of diarrhoea  A. E. Coli  B. Vibrio cholera  C. S. Pyogenes ↙↙↙ D. S. Typhi  E. Clostridium perfringes

 

C is correct answer ✅✅ associated with strep throat not diarrhoea

 

973  . Match the following    A. M.I – reduced LDH

  1. Nephrotic syndrome- Hyperalbuminemia C. G6pd deficiency- polycythaemia D. UTI- Nitrates in urine ↙↙↙ E. SLE- reduced ESR

 

D is correct answer✅✅ MI showed increased LDH Nephrotic syndrome shows hypoalbuminaemia G6PD DEFICIENCY is anaemia SLE is high ESR UTI-Nitrites in urine not nitrates…typo error

975  Which of the following vits inhibits wound healing   A  B  C  D  E↙↙↙

 

E is correct ✅✅

 

976

Sertraline is a selective inhibitor of which of the following neurotransmitters   A. Norepinephrine   b. Serotinin  ↙↙↙ c. Acetycholine   d. GABA

 

B is correct ✅✅

 

977  In brown sequard syndrome which is likely to happen  A. Loss of proprioception  on the same side ↙↙↙ B. Loss of temp on the same side  C. Loss of pain sensation on the opposite side ↙↙↙ D. Loss of vibration on d opposite side, In Brown sequard synd, there’s ipsilateral loss of vibration ,proprioception and motor and contaralateral loss of pain and temperature.

 

A and C are correct here✅✅

 

978  Bilateral  parotid  gland  enlargement  is  a  symptom  of   A)  Mikulicz’s  syndrome

  1. B) infectious mononucleosis  ✔✔ C)  mumps
  2. D) brucellosis ✔✔ E)  sarcoidosis Occurs in mikulicz’s syndrome, mumps, sarcoidosis Odd ones are options B,D.

979  A paradoxically  split  second  heart  sound  is  a  feature  of.,   A)  severe  pulmonary  stenosis   B)  a  ventricular  septal  defect   C)  severe  aortic  stenosis  ↙↙↙ D)  a  patent  ductus  arteriosus   E)  complete  right  bundle  branch  block

 

C is correct ✅✅

 

980  Macroglossia  is  a  possible  feature  of  which  of  the  following  conditions?   A)  acromegaly  ↙↙↙ B)  Marfan’s  syndrome   C)  Hurler’s  syndrome  ↙↙↙ D)  achondroplasia  E)  amyloidosis↙↙↙

 

T F T F T

981  Which  of  the  following  statements  about  post-traumatic  epilepsy  are correct?   A)  it  usually  follows  head  trauma  within  a  month   B)  the  CT  reveals  the  causative  abnormalities   C)  it  requires  surgical  therapy  in  most  cases   D)  it  responds  poorly  to  standard  anticonvulsive  therapy   E)  the  EEG  reveals  its  characteristic  changes↙↙↙ Only true option

 

982  Characteristics  of  mycoplasma-pneumonia  include:   A)  pleural  effusion  as  a  common  complication   B)  the  presence  of  cold  agglutinins

  1. C) associated renal  failure   D)  a  good  response  to  tetracyclines   E)  patients  immunized  against  mycoplasma  are  resistant↙↙↙ Odd one out

 

983  Penicillin  administration  is  the  appropriate  therapy  in  which  of  the following  complications  of  syphilis?   A)  meningitis   B)  aneurysm  of  the  aorta   C)  interstitial  keratitis   D)  condyloma  latum   E)  the  generalized  paralysis  of  psychotic  patients↙↙↙ Odd one out

985  In  which  of  the  following  conditions  can  central  cyanosis  be  detected?   A)  methemoglobinemia  ↙↙↙ B)  ventilation-perfusion  mismatch  ↙↙↙ C)  pulmonary  arteriovenous  fistula  ↙↙↙ D)  heatstroke

  1. E) heavy physical  exercise

 

T T T F F✅✅

 

986  Which  of  the  following  conditions  is  associated  with  a  male-type distribution  of  hair  in  females?   A)  myxedema   B)  true  hermaphroditism   C)  Laurence-Moon-Biedl  syndrome   D)  Stein-Leventhal. syndrome  (polycystic  ovary)  ↙↙↙ E)  Cushing’s  syndrome

 

987  Bone  density  is  markedly  increased  in:

  1. A) osteopetrosis ❓❓❓ B) Paget’s  disease  of  the  bone   C)  following  the  intake  of  a  large  amount  of  fluoride   D)  hyperparathyroidism  E)  renal  osteodystrophy

 

 

A handy mnemonic for causes of generalised increased bone density: Regular Sex Makes Occasional Perversions Much More Fun, Happening and Lovely Mnemonic R: renal osteodystrophy S: sickle celldisease M: metastasis (osteoblastic) O: osteopetrosis

P: pyknodysostosis;  Paget’sdisease  M: myelofibrosis M: mastocytosis  F: fluorosis  H: hyperparathyroidism; hypervitaminosis A and D L: lymphoma

T T T T T✅✅

 

988  Which  of  the  following  conditions  are  usually  associated  with  purpura?   A)  Henoch-Schonlein  syndrome   B)  hepatic  cirrhosis   C)  systemic  lupus  erythematosus   D)  Addison’s  disease  ↙↙↙ E)  Raynaud’s  phenomenon

 

D odd one out✅✅

 

989  The  use  of  which  of  the  following  should  be  avoided  in  patients receiving  monoamino-oxidase  inhibitor  therapy:

  1. A) cheese ✔✔✔ B)  imipramine  (Melipramin)   C)  phentolamine  (Regitin)   D)  pethidine  (Dolargan)  E)  sulphonamides

 

990

Features of primary hypoparathyroidism  A. increased Ca2+, increased PO4  B. Increased Ca2+, decreased PO4  C. Decrease Ca2+, decrease PO4  D. Decrease Ca2+, increased PO4 ↙↙↙ E. Increased Ca2+, normal PO4

 

D is correct ✅✅

 

991  Failure of muffled sound to disappear during BP check signifies  A. Aortic stenosis  B. Severe HTN  C. PDA  D. Zero diastolic BP  E. Pregnancy↙↙↙

 

E is the correct answer ✅✅ Occurs in atherosclerotic vascular dx, aged, pregnancy

 

992   Local response to acute inflammation   A. Vasoconstriction   B. Slowing of d circulation    C. Vasodilation   D. Increase capillary permeability   E. Decreased osmotic pressure of interstitial fluid↙↙↙

 

E is the right answer ✅✅ Odd one out

 

993  Regarding prevention of STIs:   A. Proper and consistent use of condoms confers protection always.   B. Hepatitis B and molluscum contagiosum are vaccine preventable.   C. Hepatitis B virus vaccine is contraindicated in HIV positive patient.    D. Counselling on safe sex practice is a secondary prevention.    E. Effective treatment of person with STI is a preventive measure.↙↙↙

 

E is correct answer✅✅ the only correct statement  Condoms not 100% safe No vaccine for molluscum contagiosum  Hep B given in HIV  counselling safe sex falls under primary prevention

 

994  Concerning Alphaherpesvirinae  A. HSV 2 resides in trigeminal ganglion  B. HSV 1 resides in Dorsal root ganglion   C. HSV 2 causes mainly oral lesions   D. HSV 1 causes mainly genital lesions   E. VSV is located in the Dorsal root ganglion↙↙↙

 

E is correct answer ✅✅ Alphaherpesvirinae group include hsv 1,2 and VSV HSV 1 oral herpes – trigeminal  ganglion hsv 2 genital herpes – sacral ganglion  VSV herpes zoster (shingles) – dorsal ganglion

 

995

UTI due to instrumentation/catheterization   A) staph aureus   B) staph saprophyticus  ↙↙↙ C Staph agalactiae   D) pseudomonas aeuroginosa   E) klebsiella and proteus

 

C is tentative answer ✅✅ Odd one out..found it the least associated with catheter UTI

 

996 Benzylpenicillin    A. Crosses placenta   B. Is active against beta hemolytic strept   C. Must be given parenterally   D. Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis    E. Can lead to delayed hypersensitivity reactions,↙↙↙

 

E is the answer✅✅the only wrong statement  it causes type 1 hypersensitivity reaction

 

997  Antibiotics effective against staph aureus   A. Cloxacillin  ↙↙↙ B. Chephalosporins  ↙↙↙ C. Fucidin   D. Clindamycin  ↙↙↙ E. Gentamycin,

 

998   Bactericidal antibiotics include

  1. Ampicillin ↙↙↙ B. Doxycycline C. Trimethoprim   D. Streptomycin    E. Cefuroxime,↙↙↙

 

Answer is T F F F T✅✅

 

999   The doses of d following drugs need not be adjusted when given to patients with impaired renal fxn   A. Tobramycin   B. Chloramphenicol   C. Daptomycin   D. Ethionamide

  1. Rifampicin✔✔✔

 

E is correct answer ✅✅

1006  . Lymph   A. Fluid clots on standing at room temp  ↙↙↙ B. Fluid contains protein at a higher Conc than dat of plasma   C. Vessels contain valves   D. Flow is mainly due to skeletal muscle contraction   E. Flow is normal ,

 

A is correct✅✅ seems to be the only correct statement  protein higher in plasma than lymph they are valveless but hv valve like structures  not just by skeletal muscle contraction  their flow is sluggish

1008   Thrombocytosiss:   a) > 4×10^9  ↙↙↙ b) Splenectomy is a cause  c) treated wif hydroxyurea  d) can occur afta major surgeries   e) Rheumatoid arthritis is a culprit.

A is correct✅✅ only wrong statement  others are correct

 

1009                 Concernin coagulation cascade   a) APTT measures intrinsic pathway   b) PT measures extrinsic pathway c) urokinase is a major activator   d) pre-kallikrein is a minor activator  e) antithrombin activates d serine protease↙↙↙

 

E is correct answer ✅✅ the only wrong statement… It inhibits serine proteases e.g which is thrombin

 

1010

Concerning Fe   A. 30% is absorbed by the upper jejunum or ileum   B. 1000g is needed in pregnancy  C. increase Fe is more needed in 1st trimester of pregnancy   D. Fe3+ is better than absorbed than Fe2+

  1. Mucosal theory is important,increase is needed in 2nd trimester✔✔✔

 

E is correct answer ✅✅ seems to be the only correct statement..

 

Others are false statements  Iron absorption is 10 %  iron more needed in the 3rd trimester iron absorbed as fe2+

 

  1. Hemoglobin A. Alpha gene is located on xsome 11   B. Beta gene is located on xsome 16   C. Heme contain porphyrin ring only   D  All of the above   E. None of the above↙↙↙ None of the options is correct.

1016   Hemoglobin    A. Had 6x buffering capacity of plasma proteins   B. Is a weaker buffer in its deoxygenated than oxygenated form   ↙↙↙ C. In its fetal form (HbF) binds 2,3 diphosphoglycerate less effectively than adult Hb   D. Decrease in conc during normal pregnancy    E. Is increased in its glycosylated form (HbA1c) in poorly controlled diabetes mellitus Only false option

 

1017  True statement    A. Lecithin production is inhibited in hypoglycemia   B.The fetus begins to practise breathing from about 10weeks,and the lungs becomes functional subsequently   C.The breathing practise helps inflate the  collapsed lungs.   D.Gas exchange in the fetus takes place in the amniotic fluid   E.The fetal lung arises from the primitive foregut,↙↙↙↙

E only true

1019  The affinity of Hb for O2 is decreased by an increase in   A. Blood pH  ↙↙↙ B. Temperature   C. 2,3 DPG   D. Carboxyhaemoglobin   E. Haemoglobin S It’s decreased by a decrease in blood PH… Odd one out  Since affinity for Hb for O2 is decreased by increase in: Temp 2,3 DPG HbS Carboxy Hb

1023   Maximum negative intrathoracic pressure is generated in   A. First cry of neonate   B. First deep yawn of neonate   C. Muller’s manoeuvre  ↙↙↙↙( true ) D. Valsalva manoeuvre   E. All of the above,

1027   Which of d following is an intermediate ionizing radiation   A. Proton   B. Neutron  ↙↙↙ C. X-rays   D. Gamma rays   E. Electron

1028  Fractination in conventional radiotherapy   A. Increases d rate of tumor cell doubling time  ↙↙↙ B. Enhances re-oxygenation    C. Accelerates tumour cell loss   D. Increases tumor cell death   E. Enhances recovery of sublethal damage Odd one out

1029  Deutrons   A. Are produced extranuclearly

  1. Deeply ionizing radiation ✔✔✔ C. Low energy transfer (length) D. High energy transfer radiation  E. Electrical waves, They are heavily charged ionizing particles and deposit their energies at points very close to each other along their paths
  2. Acidosis & alkalosis are categorised A. Into metabolic & respiratory based on d speed of compensation   B. As metabolic & respiratory based on primary cause  ↙↙↙ C. As metabolic & respiratory based on level of consciousness   D. A&B are correct   E. None of the above

1034  Which of the following about the ECG Features of LVH is incorrect   A. Tall R wave in V1  B. R wave in V1 with absolute amplitude of 7  C. Usually associated with LAD ↙↙↙ D. R wave  height exceeding S wave depth in V1  E. Usually associated with RAD

C is correct answer ✅✅ it is the only correct statement  LVH is usually tall R in V5 or V6 greater than 25mm

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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